Talk:Rohanese: Difference between revisions
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==Rohanese== | ==Rohanese== | ||
In PE22:159 (c. 1969), Tolkien uses "Rohanese" in the sentence "''Eorlingas'' must be an interpretation (of the 20th C[entury]) of some other name in Rohanese. The real word was ''þuron'' (rel[ated] to Elvish ''tur-'' ?), ''þorunahim''. [...]" This article notes that his usage in ''The Rivers and Beacon-hills of Gondor'' (VT42:8) "is not clear by the context if the word is the name of a language, or simply an adjective." Do others (as I do) think that its usage in PE22:159 leans more towards the "name of a language" nuance? [[User:Unweg|Unweg]] 02:07, 7 July 2015 (UTC) | In PE22:159 (c. 1969), Tolkien uses "Rohanese" in the sentence "''Eorlingas'' must be an interpretation (of the 20th C[entury]) of some other name in Rohanese. The real word was ''þuron'' (rel[ated] to Elvish ''tur-'' ?), ''þorunahim''. [...]" This article notes that his usage in ''The Rivers and Beacon-hills of Gondor'' (VT42:8) "is not clear by the context if the word is the name of a language, or simply an adjective." Do others (as I do) think that its usage in PE22:159 leans more towards the "name of a language" nuance? [[User:Unweg|Unweg]] 02:07, 7 July 2015 (UTC) | ||
:Yes. --{{User:Mith/sig}} 08:28, 7 July 2015 (UTC) |
Revision as of 08:28, 7 July 2015
I have heard recently that Rohirric is supposed to be spelled Rohiric, with one "r", because while Rohirrim has the "r" in both the -rim and the root word, it is not so with Rohiric. Could anyone find any information on that statement? I think I read it in a forum or something. I don't believe Tolkien actually spelled it out in his books. --Narfil Palùrfalas 22:14, 22 June 2006 (EDT)
- Helge Fauskanger writes Rohirric at Ardalambion's page about "Various Mannish Tongues". --Earendilyon 04:21, 23 June 2006 (EDT)
Rewrite
It's a mess, unsourced, and very out-of-universe. Also, in light of above discussion: [1] -- Ederchil (Talk/Contribs/Edits) 14:45, 29 November 2008 (UTC)
Rohanese
In PE22:159 (c. 1969), Tolkien uses "Rohanese" in the sentence "Eorlingas must be an interpretation (of the 20th C[entury]) of some other name in Rohanese. The real word was þuron (rel[ated] to Elvish tur- ?), þorunahim. [...]" This article notes that his usage in The Rivers and Beacon-hills of Gondor (VT42:8) "is not clear by the context if the word is the name of a language, or simply an adjective." Do others (as I do) think that its usage in PE22:159 leans more towards the "name of a language" nuance? Unweg 02:07, 7 July 2015 (UTC)