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Talk:Heir of Elendil

I noticed this in the article: "The political situation in the South-kingdom of Gondor was more complicated, because its first independent King, Meneldil, was not a direct heir of Elendil in the strictest sense, being the son of Isildur's younger brother Anárion." How is Meneldil not an heir in the strictest sense when he is a direct descendent of Elendil through Anárion? Maybe this could be applied to the later kings of Gondor but why would Elendil's grandson not be a direct heir of Elendil? Turiannerevarine 11:57, 29 April 2021 (UTC)

The qualifying statement "in the strictest sense" after "heir" probably refers to the númenórean and arnorean rule of succession for the throne that the eldest son or if there is no son, the eldest daughter is the heir to the throne of the king. A younger son should not be an heir to the throne in the strict Sense unless the older brother died before him without leaving a son or a daughter. --Akhorahil 14:01, 29 April 2021 (UTC)