Talk:Heir of Elendil

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I noticed this in the article: "The political situation in the South-kingdom of Gondor was more complicated, because its first independent King, Meneldil, was not a direct heir of Elendil in the strictest sense, being the son of Isildur's younger brother Anárion." How is Meneldil not an heir in the strictest sense when he is a direct descendent of Elendil through Anárion? Maybe this could be applied to the later kings of Gondor but why would Elendil's grandson not be a direct heir of Elendil? Turiannerevarine 11:57, 29 April 2021 (UTC)Reply[reply]

The qualifying statement "in the strictest sense" after "heir" probably refers to the númenórean and arnorean rule of succession for the throne that the eldest son or if there is no son, the eldest daughter is the heir to the throne of the king. A younger son should not be an heir to the throne in the strict Sense unless the older brother died before him without leaving a son or a daughter. --Akhorahil 14:01, 29 April 2021 (UTC)Reply[reply]

There is no statement in sources that were written by J.R.R. Tolkien that Elendil was the "last Lord of Andúnië in Númenor". It is not known what happened to Amandil and when and where he died. The index entry for Amandil in The Silmarillion states "the last lord of the last lord of Andúnië in Númenor in Númenor". Appendix A I (i) states that "Her son was Valandil, first of the Lords of Andúnië in the west of the land, renowned for their friendship with the Eldar. From him were descended Amandil, the last lord, and his son Elendil the Tall." Since Elendil did not know if his father was dead we do not know if he could succeed his father as lord and there is no statement that his father formally abdicated when he left Númenor. After the drowning of Númenor Andúnië did not exist anymore so it does not make sense to be lord of something that does not exist anymore when he was instead High King of the Númenórean realms in exile of Arnor and Gondor. There is no chapter called "Of Númenor and the Dúnedain" in The Silmarillion. I do not know if the user Angol has access to a copy of the 50th anniversary edition of LOTR. If yes, references to LOTR should include page numbers for this edition. Regardless of that references to the appendices of LOTR should not just be to an appendix in general, but to the deepest level of subdision as possible that exists in this appendix so that readers of the page who want to verify the accuracy of the statements can find the source for those statements quickly. The statements on this page require a rigorous comparison with the sources. --Akhôrahil (talk) 10:17, 29 November 2024 (UTC)Reply[reply]